A Philosophical Rejection of The Big Bang Theory

A Philosophical Rejection of The Big Bang Theory

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Preface

The analysis in this book is started with the confirmed fact that Alexander Friedmann’s 1922 work had no relation with Hubble’s Law that was yet to be found by Edwin Hubble in 1929. Official sources repeatedly tell us that Georges Lemaître had found similar to Friedmann’s solution in year 1927 so I thought that Lemaître’s work also should have no actual relation with Hubble’s Law. My analysis kept going with this assumption till section I.III where I realized that if unlike Friedmann, Lemaître had the data of Doppler’s Redshifts of various galaxies, then he also could have means to find the distance of those galaxies. Admittedly, this book up to section I.III is an analysis based on an incorrect assumption that by 1927, Lemaître should be unaware of Hubble Type redshift-distance relationship in light coming from far off galaxies. But that analysis forced me to download 1927 paper of Lemaître. Initially I found English Translation (1931) by the title: “A Homogeneous Universe of Constant Mass and Increasing Radius accounting for the Radial Velocity of Extra-galactic Nebulæ”. I was shocked to see that my analysis was wrong up to section I.III because apparently Lemaître had already derived Hubble type redshift-distance relationship solely from General Relativity (GR) Equations. But I was not wrong. This was a manipulated translation; he had not derived that relationship from GR equations rather had derived from a method which he took directly from Hubble himself, detail thereof I have explained in this book. Here in this book, original papers of Friedmann (1922), Lemaître (1927), Edwin Hubble (1929), Albert Einstein (1917) along with other important relevant papers have been analyzed and only the most fundamental aspects like expansion and CMBR of Big Bang Cosmology are covered. If these two aspects of Big Bang Cosmology are precisely refuted then there is nothing crucial left with the standard model.

Philosophy is not concerned with providing definite solutions to the problems. Therefore, alternatives suggested in this book should not literally be taken as definite alternatives. They however represent philosophically solid and justified positions and it is up to readers who should conclude the matter by applying their own critical judgment. This book will however expose the undue authoritative nature of FLRW metric and with this book, Big Bang Theory is set to become a story of past.

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Reason did not start with Socrates, Plato and Aristotle

This post is in response to a point of view that starting point of Western Philosophy is Socrates because this era was the start of reason and that study of Philosophy should be started from this era.

My response is that Philosophy makes no sense if we do not start with earlier period that was characterized by superstitions and mythology. Age of reason has come as response or reforms to those earlier unreasonable practices. Following is a summery of different stages up to Aristotle:

———-

Scene-1:

Dionysus … the god of vine.

Orpheus … The proponent of Dionysism …

According to him matter is prison of soul.

Soul must meet the ultimate reality (might be the same god Dionysus).

The method is drinking vine and inducing the spirit of Dynonisus in them.

So purpose achieved…!!!

———-

Scene-2:

Pythagoras … a REFORMER of Dionysism.

Purpose is same.

There is AMENDMENT IN METHOD.

Now method is NOT drinking vine.

Now method is using Intellect and intellectual thought.

That is BIRTH of REASON.

———-

Scene-3:

Parmenides.

A follower of Pythagoras and devotee of reason.

matter was previously the prison of soul.

Now again … matter is a bad guy. ILLUSION.

According to REASON, reality is not in observable matter.

Only reason can find the UNCHANGABLE reality.

———-

Scene-4:

Reaction to Parmenides using same reason.

Atomism. Reality of matter affirmed.

———-

Scene-5:

Reason becomes a standard method of inquiry.

Sophists and Sophistry.

———-

Scene-6:

Sophistry method is not clear. In order to refer to things or phenomenon, we must use definitions and concepts.

An important concept added to reason by SOCRATES.

———-

Scene-7:

PLATO … reality is in reason. The point of Prmenides.

Parmenides said whole reality is UNCHANGEABLE and matter is ILLUSION.

PLATO said every individual thing of experience has UNCHANGING IDEAL ‘UNIVERSAL’ counterpart.

Those ideal universals are real. Observed things are shadows (a form of illusion).

———-

Scene-7:

Aristotle

…. Method of reason must be refined. There must be rules of accuracy. Theory of Logic.

What I want to say … reason itself was not discovered at this stage. Rules of accuracy of reason were discovered at this important stage.

The question is what is the purpose of reading Philosophy?

Is the purpose to understand Philosophy?

Or to understand reality?

If understanding of philosophy is pursued, then my be, studying 2400 years of philosophers from the time of Socrates should be the approach.

If understanding of reality is the task … then we can even start from Frazer. Who will take us to most ancient times where humans started using brain in whatever form. Off course, that path will lead only towards reality of consciousness and mind.

Reality of matter must be judged from personal experiences and reflections and off course by taking help from reading previous or present relevant Philosophers and scientists.

My one sentence definition of Kant

The question was can you define Immanuel Kant in one sentence?

Immanuel Kant

So following was my one sentence definition of Kant:

One who accumulated jumble of shallow details to legitimize metaphysics by attributing it to intelligible knowledge, by not treating it but by calling it ‘a priori’ knowledge and by saying that sensible world is created by that ‘a priori’ knowledge.

Why is Big Bang not a Scientific Theory?

Big Bang Theory is invalid theory in the capacity of a “scientific theory”.

Modern cosmologists now try to get rid of the term “big bang” by saying that it was derogatory term coined by Fred Hoyle etc.

They do affirm at least two things and insist that these two things are scientifically valid. Following are the two points:

  1. That Universe is Expanding and;
  2. Early Universe was hot and dense.

‘Big Bang’ is not a recognized theory as such. But above two points constitute a recognized theory which, in detailed mathematical form, is often termed as “Lambda-CDM Model”.

Both of these two points are actually without any scientific proof. Expansion is said to be derived from observed redshifts. The point is that the observed redshift is not Doppler’s Effect. It has different name i.e. Cosmological Redshift.

Unlike Doppler’s effect, Cosmological Redshift itself does not constitute the proof of receding of anything from us. In the absence of clear Doppler’s Redshift, there is need of direct evidence that galaxies are in fact moving away. But there is no direct evidence. For example they say that galaxies are moving away and at greater distance, same galaxies will become more redshifted.

Now direct evidence can be in the form that we may note increase in redshift over time. We have 100 years old data of redshift of many galaxies and increase in redshift over the period of 100 years has not been recorded. Let’s say the farthest visible galaxy is moving away at speed of light and its redshift value now indicates distance of 13.3 billion light years. After one million years, we shall be able to note slight increase in redshift that will indicate a distance of 13.31 billion light years.

Fact is that … direct evidence of receding of galaxies is not available now and it can be available, if galaxies are really moving away, only after hundreds of thousands of years.

My point is that … till then please call it a philosophical theory. When after many hundreds of thousands of years you will eventually get the direct evidence, then I also will call it a scientific theory. But before that time, it is Philosophical or even Mythical.

They also say that CMB is proof of expansion. I say CMB is not the proof of expansion. They only have ‘interpreted’ CMB in terms of expanding universe.

CMB can also be ‘interpreted’ in terms of non-expanding infinite universe. In this case, there should be daytime brightness in terms of Olber’s paradox. I say that CMB is that daytime (redshifted to invisible spectrum zone) brightness and thus it is proof of infinite and static universe.

They do not even have any explanation of CMB if universe is not expanding.

They also say that abundance of light elements in far-off (early) universe is also proof of expansion.

I say this is also not the proof of expansion. Let’s say Universe was infinite and by the time of their so-called Big Bang there was only universal fog of Hydrogen (may be including other light elements). In that case, first galaxies started to emerge by way of gravitational condensation of already existing fog at the standard accepted time and thus again abundance of light elements has been explained in a non-expanding universe. In fact, abundance of light elements is not any proof of expansion. If correct, then it is only proof to the fact that at earlier time, everywhere throughout infinite vastness, there were only light elements.

In short, fact is that so-far there is exact zero proof of this expanding universe theory. When after many hundred of thousands of years they will get the direct evidence, then I will be the first to accept that yes expanding universe theory is a scientific theory.

Why is Hegel accused of being “unreadable”?

Thanks to Encyclopedias and other secondary sources through which we may know what Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was saying. His original writings are almost not readable.

My assessment is that Hegel does not expect anything from or care anything for the reader. He is himself expert of Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, Descartes, Spinoza, Locke, Leibniz, Hume and Kant etc. and he is talking to himself. He is not even trying to explain his points to readers. His context is his own mind and only he knows where he is talking from. It seems like he was writing diaries for record of himself alone and then published those diaries.

Off course it may be possible to reach to his context by first becoming expert of all those Philosophers as stated above. It also may be equally correct to say that he is writing only for top experts of the field or for advanced students. But he himself does not state this ambition. Based on my attempt of reading him from translation of original writings coupled with what secondary sources inform us about him, my understanding is that he is idealist and talks in terms of universals. His dynamics are dynamics of ideas alone. Progress in ideas has nothing to do with observation of Phenomena though title of one of his books is “Phenomenology of Spirit”. Progress in ideas takes place only due to internal conflicts of ideas. Sometimes it seems that he also favors empirical approach and talks about real things that exist around us, but a closer look may reveal that he talks about them in the sense of “universals”.

Hegel’s Dialectic is a closed Rationalist Idealism. There is already an idea, a ‘thesis’ (thesis_anti-thesis are perhaps interpretations to be found only in secondary sources but do offer convenient approach for describing what Hegel was actually saying). Progress in ideas will come from within this thesis as the same thesis will give rise to anti-thesis. This is closed system because there is no role of outsider fresh information in the process of up-gradation of ideas. There is no role of phenomena as well. This is Idealism because ideas alone give rise to further ideas and there is no role of material world. It is Rationalism because only an internal logic of ideas i.e. meta-logic determines the direction of ideas. This is extreme Rationalism like of World of Ideas or Universalization that of Plato.

“Newton was careless”; An Expert had to say

There are lot of fishy things going on in Modern Physics. Textbooks on Physics as well as all the official sources of Physics inform us that second law of Newton is F=ma (or modern form of F=dp/dt).

Anything questioning this stance is straight regarded as crack-pottery. But I dared to question this. I have had intense debates with experts on this topic many times.

Here I choose to not go into the details. Topic is lengthy and I should write a book on this subject. Here I am only telling that recently I had debate with a PhD Physics person. When I sufficiently showed to him that in fact Newton did not say F=ma and that what actually he was saying can be described as F=mv.

That PhD Physics person then had to say following:

The fact is, Newton was not quite as careful and precise with words and definitions in 1687 as modern science and mathematics (and yes, textbooks) demand.

09-07-2019 – By a person “PhD in Theoretical Physics”.

The brief background is that I confronted him that Newton did not say F=ma; instead he said F=mv.

Now he tried hard to prove that Newton in fact said F=ma.

But I sufficiently proved my stance that in fact Newton was saying F=mv instead of F=ma.

At this point … not only he … the experts in general tend to unduly favor textbooks stance. They do usually come to the point that … so what if Newton carelessly stated his law in a way that cannot be mathematically described as F=ma. But Textbooks reached to the better truth of F=ma which has passed ‘all the tests’.

My demand from them is that then please stop calling second law of motion as ‘Newton’s Second Law of Motion’.

If task is to present correct information in textbooks, then please inform the students that originally Newton presented F=mv. But textbooks reached to the better position of F=ma.

Above is their accepted truth that they do not openly present.

What they do not accept so far is that Newton was right in saying that F=mv and textbooks are wrong in the formulation of F=ma.

Yes … in my opinion … Newton was right. F=ma is a wrong formulation.

My demand from Science authorities is that please rename this law as “Euler’s Law of F=ma”.

I share following quote from Stanford Encyclopedia’s entry about Newton. The quote is saying that F=ma formulation is not traceable from within Principia. This quote also tells the name of person (Euler) who made this formulation F=ma as part of academic culture. This quote is also saying that textbook “Newtonian Physics” is actually “Euler’s Physics”.

Therefore my demand is … Instead of calling it (second law) Newton’s Law … Please call it Euler’s Law.

Isaac Newton (Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy)

Euler was the central figure in turning the three laws of motion put forward by Newton in the Principia into Newtonian mechanics. These three laws, as Newton formulated them, apply to “point-masses,” a term Euler had put forward in his Mechanica of 1736. Most of the effort of eighteenth century mechanics was devoted to solving problems of the motion of rigid bodies, elastic strings and bodies, and fluids, all of which require principles beyond Newton’s three laws. From the 1740s on this led to alternative approaches to formulating a general mechanics, employing such different principles as the conservation of vis viva, the principle of least action, and d’Alembert’s principle. The “Newtonian” formulation of a general mechanics sprang from Euler’s proposal in 1750 that Newton’s second law, in an F=ma formulation that appears nowhere in the Principia, could be applied locally within bodies and fluids to yield differential equations for the motions of bodies, elastic and rigid, and fluids. During the 1750s Euler developed his equations for the motion of fluids, and in the 1760s, his equations of rigid-body motion. What we call Newtonian mechanics was accordingly something for which Euler was more responsible than Newton.

Stanford Encyclopedia is acknowledging that F=ma formulation appears nowhere in Principia.

Anyways, when experts do say that Newton was careless as he should have said F=ma which he failed and they say this thing only after finding that there is no way to escape, then my genuine demand is that please rename this law as Euler Law and stop calling it Newton’s law.

If they do not rename this law and keep calling Newton careless when they themselves fail to defend the stance that Newton has anything to do with F=ma thing … then their act of calling Newton as careless is kind of “Cat out of Bag Situation”.